Reproductive Health MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 with Answers

Find here the NCERT chapter-wise Multiple Choice Questions from Class 12 Biology book Chapter 24 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download. This may assist you to understand and check your knowledge about the chapters. Students also can take a free test of the Multiple Choice Questions of Reproductive Health. Each question has four options followed by the right answer. These MCQ Questions are selected supported by the newest exam pattern as announced by CBSE.

NCERT MCQ Chapters for Class 12 Biology

Q1. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called

(i) GIFT
(ii) ZIFT
(iii) ICSI
(iv) ET

(iii) ICSI

Q2. Histamine is secreted by:

(i) Mast cell
(ii) Nerve cells
(iii) Kidney
(iv) Liver cells

Above

Q3. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within

(i) 72 hrs of coitus.
(ii) 72 hrs of ovulation.
(iii) 72 hrs of menstruation.
(iv) 72 hrs of implantation.

(i) 72 hrs of coitus.

Q4. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in :

(i) 1950s
(ii) 1960s
(iii) 1980s
(iv) 1990s.

(i) 1950s

Q5. Drug Ru-486 is used as :

(i) Contraceptive
(ii) Abortive agent
(iii) Amniocentesis
(iv) Mutagen

(ii) Abortive agent

Q6. Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low sperm count ?

(i) IUD
(ii) GIFT
(iii) IUI
(iv) None of these

(iii) IUI

Q7. Saheli is

(i) A surgical sterilization
(ii) An oral contraceptive for females
(iii) A diaphragm for females
(iv) A diaphragm for male

(ii) An oral contraceptive for females

Q8. In which of the following ARTs, does in vivo fertilisation occur?

(i) ZIFT
(ii) GIFT
(iii) ICSI
(iv) IVF

(ii) GIFT

Q9. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the :

(i) Suppression of gonadotropins
(ii) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(iii) Suppression of gametic transport
(iv) Suppression of fertilisation.

(i) Suppression of gonadotropins

Q10. Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:

(i) Daily
(ii) Weekly
(iii) Quarterly
(iv) Monthly

(i) Daily

Q11. Which of the following is ART?

(i) IUDs
(ii) GIFT
(iii) ZIFT
(iv) Both (ii) & (iii)

(iv) Both (ii) & (iii)

Q12. It is a disease which affects the mucus membrane of urogenital tract in male and yellow discharge in urine with feeling of illness.

(i) Warts
(ii) Syphilis
(iii) Gonorrhea
(iv) AIDS

(iii) Gonorrhea

Q13. Which among the following is commonly called withdrawal method?

(i) Lactational amenorrhoea
(ii) Coitus interruptus
(iii) Periodic abstinence
(iv) Rhythm method

(ii) Coitus interruptus

Q14. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:

(i) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
(ii) Result in decline in growth rate
(iii) Not cause significant change in growth rate
(iv) Result in an explosive population.

(iii) Not cause significant change in growth rate

Q15. Amniocentesis is a process to:

(i) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(ii) Know about diseases of brain
(iii) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(iv) All of these

(iii) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo

Q16. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

(i) suppression of gonadotropins
(ii) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(iii) suppression of gametic transport
(iv) suppression of fertilisation.

(i) suppression of gonadotropins

Q17. What is the correct surgical method for preventing pregnancy in which the vas deferens is cut?

(i) Ovariectomy
(ii) Hysterectomy
(iii) Vasectomy
(iv) Castration

(iii) Vasectomy

Q18. Which of the following is hormonereleasing?

(i) Multiload 375
(ii) LNG-20
(iii) Lippes loop
(iv) Cu 7

(ii) LNG-20

Q19. Choose the right one among the statements given below:

(i) lUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(ii) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(iii) lUDs suppress gametogenesis
(iv) lUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

(ii) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

Q20. Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:

(i) Population density
(ii) Population crash
(iii) Population explosion
(iv) All of these

(ii) Population crash

Q21. RCH stands for

(i) routine check-up of health
(ii) reproduction cum hygiene
(iii) reversible contraceptive hazards
(iv) reproductive and child health care.

(iv) reproductive and child health care.

Q22. Which of the following contraceptive method is useful to control STD’s as well as unwanted pregnancy?

(i) Tubectomy
(ii) Condom
(iii) Copper-T
(iv) Oral Pills

(ii) Condom

Q23. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

(i) suppression of gonadotropins.
(ii) hyper secretion of gonadotropins.
(iii) suppression of gametic transport.
(iv) suppression of fertilisation.

(i) suppression of gonadotropins.

Q24. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:

(i) Syphilis
(ii) AIDS
(iii) Gonorrhoea
(iv) Genital warts

(ii) AIDS

Q25. In India, first consus was conducted in:

(i) 1851
(ii) 1891
(iii) 1921
(iv) 1951

(ii) 1891

Q26. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(i) Jaundice
(ii) Down’s syndrome
(iii) Cystic fibrosis
(iv) Colourblindness

(i) Jaundice

Q27. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is

(i) Zygote
(ii) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(iii) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
(iv) Morula

(iv) Morula

Q28. The oral contraceptive pills mainly contain the hormones

(i) estrogen and luteinising hormone.
(ii) progesterone and estrogen.
(iii) estrogens and follicle-stimulating hormone.
(iv) progesterone and follicle-stimulating hormone.

(ii) progesterone and estrogen.

Q29. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:

(i) Ovariectomy
(ii) Hysterectomy
(iii) Vasectomy
(iv) Castration.

(iii) Vasectomy

Q30. The most effective method for birth control is:

(i) Abortion
(ii) Oral pills
(iii) Abstinence
(iv) Sterilization

(iv) Sterilization

Q31. In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?

(i) 12th – 14th week
(ii) 8th – 10th week
(iii) 5th – 7th week
(iv) None of these

(ii) 8th – 10th week

Q32. Sequence of hormones during menstrual cycle is

(i) Oestrogen, progesterone and FSH
(ii) Progesterone, oestrogen and FSH
(iii) FSH, oestrogen and progesterone
(iv) FSH, progesterone andoestrogen

(iii) FSH, oestrogen and progesterone

Q33. ZIFT is transfer of

(i) zygote into fallopian tube.
(ii) a mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube.
(iii) a mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus.
(iv) embryo into the uterus.

(i) zygote into fallopian tube.

Q34. A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic disorders, but is also misused for female foeticide is:

(i) Lactational amenorrhea
(ii) Amniocentesis
(iii) Artificial insemination
(iv) Parturition

(ii) Amniocentesis

Q35. Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?

(i) Coitus intrruptus
(ii) Periodic abstinence
(iii) Vasectomy
(iv) Lactational amenorrhoea

(ii) Periodic abstinence

Q36. Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?

(i) Natality and immigration
(ii) Mortality and emigration
(iii) Natality and emigration
(iv) Mortality and immigration

(i) Natality and immigration

Q37. The period between entry of pathogen into the body and appearance of first symptom is called?

(i) Proliferative period
(ii) Growth period
(iii) Incubation period
(iv) Generative period

(iii) Incubation period

Q38. Fssay on Population was published by :

(i) Darwin
(ii) Lamarck
(iii) Malthus
(iv) Hugo de vries

(iii) Malthus

Q39. Confirmatory test for STDs is

(i) ELISA
(ii) PCR
(iii) DNA hybridisation
(iv) all of these.

(iv) all of these.

Q40. The birth control device not used by women is?

(i) Diaphrame
(ii) Oral pill
(iii) Nirodh
(iv) Copper-T

(iii) Nirodh

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